In UK English especially, done is a verb, not an adjective.

Where is Gralhund Villa located within Waterdeep? To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers. Have done is the present perfect form of the verb ‘do.’ The past participle form of do is done. Why are decisions “made” instead of “done”? However, 'I am done', 'I'm done', or 'I'm all done' is also generally accepted to mean the same thing.

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"I am done" means you are a cake that is done. • Have done is used to speak of an action that was completed recently. Of course they are also pronounced differently. Also, "It's done." rev 2020.10.30.37923, The best answers are voted up and rise to the top, English Language & Usage Stack Exchange works best with JavaScript enabled, Start here for a quick overview of the site, Detailed answers to any questions you might have, Discuss the workings and policies of this site, Learn more about Stack Overflow the company, Learn more about hiring developers or posting ads with us. However, if you were writing something formal it would be more common to write, "I had done". Based on Webster's defination in the sentence : I am done ; I , the subject of sentece , is being completed. acceptable? The past perfect form of had done indicates an action that took place preferably long time ago as in the sentences given below. Silliness, regardless what Oxford and Cambridge argue. In the second sentence, too you can see that somebody completed a work assigned to him long ago. Show activity on this post. If you have finished a task or a job, you should say, "I have finished", or "I'm through".

Here are two typical examples: 1) I have my business taken care of (= Somebody is taking care of my business). Have done is used to speak about a work that was completed recently, but the time the work was completed is not known. 'Have' is strictly correct. If Jesus is the "true" vine (anti-type), who or what is the "untrue" vine (type)? Therefore I, the subject of the sentence, is beautiful (in other words, state of being). and "I am done" would signify that one was finished with, say, a task.

done is the past (tense) participle of the verb do ( Participle refers to being a part of a compound form of the verb, i.e., another verb is placed next to it). In the above sentence, you can see two tenses. But it's entirely possible that it's Donne's nationality rather than his epoch that accounts for his usage. Why did Google make Chromium Open Source? If we know the time, the tense changes to simple past. But I may be wrong. But "I finished" means one has completed a task/project without expression, too. • Had done is used to speak about an action that was completed a long time ago in the past. Therefore, it has a totally different meaning from I have done Sub + Predicate (verb intransitive). Meaning of some unit of measurement of kinase activity. Yes, 'I have done' works, because it's not 'on its own'; it's given context by the question, just like 'Yes, I have' is. Here is a nice reference: http://web.stanford.edu/~bresnan/contraction.pdf. Strictly speaking there is a difference between them. Therefore, you have to think about the time the action happens before applying either had done or have done. In UK English especially, done is a verb, not an adjective. In the first sentence, you can see that a person has completed the work assigned to him recently. To subscribe to this RSS feed, copy and paste this URL into your RSS reader. Is the former less common for native English speakers because it kinda sound like I done? 3D Visualization of Molecule / Surface by 3D Model (.stl), 30 year Groundhog's day: Surviving High School with sanity intact (ie how to avoid the repetativness of school life). Plus, I was ashamed to admit, I had done nothing for the club so far. @Collin, It's done could mean the programme is completed or finish, it's different from I am done. You're cooked. Different pronunciations of “she's” depending on the meaning. @Colin Because of Americanisation, I bet. As we all know, in a perfect tense, the verb is created using the helping verb and the past participle. According to Cambridge Advanced Learner's Dictionary 3rd ed., the verb do is an intransitive verb in the meaning of complete/finish. @media (max-width: 1171px) { .sidead300 { margin-left: -20px; } } It is interesting to note that the verb ‘do’ gets converted to ‘done’ in its perfect form because done is the past participle of do. Are there any functions with Big O (Busy Beaver(n))? I don't think it's the verb/adjective difference, but the agentive use as opposed to the patient. So do I, if we follow VBe, the subject of the sentence is BEING DONE not the task.

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Have something done - English Grammar Today - a reference to written and spoken English grammar and usage - Cambridge Dictionary What is the difference between “affirm” and “acknowledged”? Saying "I'm done" sits very uncomfortably with me. Had done is the past perfect form of the verb do. I believe it's more prevalent in US English. Yes, I have finished. Look at the following examples. Usually, "I have done" would require an object (done what, precisely?) Is "beyond your comprehension" an offensive phrase? • Both of the verb constructions are made with a helping verb and past participle of the given verb. • Had done can be used with any pronoun without a problem. They speak about two different times. For the third person singular pronouns such as he and she, you have to use has done. What's the right way of removing an indoor telephone line? What does it mean when people say "Physics break down"?

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